Saturday, October 24, 2009

Slavery in the Bible

I'm reading through the Old Testament and again I'm struck by the grating truth that slavery is condoned by decree of God at least in the Israelite nation.

I know I want more input on this subject, because it seems like it is the only topic I can't really wrap my mind around (except the Gospel and its amazing truths...but you know what I mean). I don't want to dismiss the subject, but I also won't allow the uncertainty to dismantle my faith.

Can the whole issue of slavery in the Bible be boiled down to cultural norms? But since when have the decrees of God catered to cultural norms? As humans, our "cultural norm" is a depraved nature and the message of Christ is one that acknowledges our inherent sinfulness before a holy God and the utter sufficiency of Christ's atoning (covering, paid-in-full) death and resurrection.

I don't buy the school of thought that the God of the "Old Testament" is one of doom and gloom and wrath, and the God of the "New Testament" is one of love and grace and peace. I can't tell you how many ways that argument violates the truths found in Scripture.

Am I mis-understanding how slavery and the slave/master relationship worked in Biblical times? As a frame of reference, I (and probably you too) automatically drum up pictures of the abolished African slave trade in the 17 and 1800's- but was it like that? Are we talking about more of an indentured servant situation? Were slaves mistreated? Were they forced into and held in slavery against their will?

I'm especially aware of the cognitive dissonance the issue of slavery creates in my mind because I love and support all the modern day abolitionist movements. (And for those who don't know...slavery is alive and well in our day....read the book "Not For Sale" by David Batstone).

Help me understand.

1 comment:

  1. 1) I don't know about this either. The Canaanite Genocide generally bothers me more than this issue, but this is second on my list.

    2) I wonder if there's any merit to the idea I've heard before that sees God's revelation as a process? This is not the same as the wrathful God in the OT, lovey-dovey Jesus in the NT. Not at all. His character hasn't changed, but He has revealed Himself in fuller ways--perhaps as part of His plan for salvation, perhaps not giving us more than we could bear at a given moment. I think this is evident in that the OT--while showing God--doesn't make the Trinity very explicit. The OT prophets by and large didn't know Jesus: God-in-the-flesh [except perhaps for the few Prefiguration experiences]

    ...the same thing with the covenants. The OT Law but contained IN the Law the promise of the New Covenant: written on hearts and minds (Jer 31, etc).

    Maybe it's similar with this...slavery was allowed, but parameters were put on it. Women's rights weren't as well recognized (Men who raped them were required to have marry them after. Sure, I get that this was to protect a woman's social status b/c w/o a husband she was nothing, but it's still a sucky situation.) So God gave parameters, and later worked in the faithful to work to abolish slavery [I think we see hints of this idea in the NT in Paul's writings. Not as a political movement but in not necessarily holding to the slave/master distinction.]

    2) Correct me if I'm wrong, but weren't all slaves supposed to be set free after 7 years? And if they wanted to remain, they had to have their ears pierced, as a sign that they WILLING wished to remain slaves? I think the year of Jubilee ties into this too. (Though, I don't think Israel ever actually PRACTICED the latter, hopefully they did the former?)

    ReplyDelete